Part Time Leave of Absence?

If a person takes a leave of absence from a full-time job, it's reasonable to assume that they're not working for their employer during the period of the leave. But if they took a "part-time" leave of absence, wouldn't it also be reasonable to assume that they're only on leave PART of the time, and that the rest of the time they're working, especially if we were drawing a salary as an employee? Why call it a part-time leave unless you want people to believe you're still working part-time?

Mitt Romney expects us to believe that during his three year part-time leave of absence he provided NO executive input to a firm, Bain Capital, of which he was sole shareholder, CEO and Chairman of the Board, from which he drew an annual salary in excess of $100,000, and in which he had a financial stake of perhaps $100 million.